This is an example of the type of things a non-scientifically qualified autodidact like myself thinks about……
According to modern physics the smallest possible area of space is known as the Planck Length. This is calculated as being 1.1612581 x 10-35 metres. In normal language this is 0. (34 zeros)16128581 or 0.000000000000000000000000000000000016128581 metres. So NOTHING can be smaller than this. At this size space itself is quantised. In effect this is like an pixel of space that has no contact with the next pixel. It is impossible to describe the “space” between these pixels because the pixels themselves are space. I assume that this “space” is actually the quantum vacuum (the place where these magical “virtual particles” appear and disappear from – see my earlier posting).
The smallest amount of time that can exist is known as Planck Time. This is the amount of time it would take a light beam (photon particle or wave? Okay, let’s not go there ;)) to traverse the Planck Length. Apparently this is 5.3912427×10-44 seconds or 0.0000000000000000000000000000000000000000003912427 seconds.
Okay, so this is how my scientifically non-qualified mind works ….. Modern science has us believe that the Big Bang “exploded” out of a singularity (i.e. absolutely nothing) at around 13.8 billion years ago. At this point both time and space tumbled out of nothing. My question is a really simple one, one that I can find now evidence has been asked before. And this is how did “space” manage to expand from a point to the Planck Length? By this I mean that when the Big Bang occurred there was no space or time. But space needed time to expand. No time means no time to be able to expand. So did time come first? Logic (hmmm) demands that time also needs space to exist. Indeed did not Einstein himself prove that space and time are the same thing (“Space-time”)?
But my point is a deeper one. If space is quantised then how did space expand from absolutely nothing to the Planck Length when no smaller space can be possible? Not only this but it did it in no time at all (i.e at the speed of light the expansion of space would need 0.0000000000000000000000000000000000000000003912427 seconds, Planck Time to “move” from the singularity to 0.000000000000000000000000000000000016128581 metres). But surely from what is the greatest “standing start” in history the universe expanded without any time to expand. Did it accelerate from zero velocity to light speed in literally no time at all? If it did what “space” did it cross to do this because it was space itself that was “expanding”?
The “explanation” for this is a concept known as “Cosmic Inflation”. This was first suggested by Alan Guth and it argues that during the first 10-35 seconds the universe (space) expanded at a rate many times faster than the speed of light. You will note that this is a larger amount of time than Planck time (10-35 as opposed to 10-43 seconds) by a factor of 8 orders of size. By some calculations, inflation increased the size of the universe by a factor of around 1026 during that tiny fraction (far less than a trillionth) of a second, expanding it from smaller than the size of a proton to about the size of a grapefruit. Apparently “Cosmic Expansion” could contradict the rule of nothing can go faster than the speed of light by using the analogy of two airplanes both flying away from each other at 500 miles an hour. It seems that this can be explained. Although there ACTUAL speed is 500 miles an hour they are flying apart at 1,000 miles an hour (https://www.physicsoftheuniverse.com/topics_bigbang_inflation.html). Forgive me on this, but in my scientifically illiterate mind, I believed that the central point of Einstein’s theory of Relativity was that the Relative speed from any observer’s viewpoint could not be greater than the speed of light. Therefore, if I was a passenger on one of these planes watching the other plane accelerate away from me from my “relative” position it is travelling at 1,000 miles an hour. If the relative speeds of the aircraft was the speed of light then, according to this analogy the other plane’s speed relative to me would be twice the speed of light. And as I understand this, this is forbidden by Einstein’s theory. Furthermore, also as I understand it, to travel at greater than the speed of light would demand infinite mass or that time would stop. So how did “space” expand at such speed when it supposedly is “empty” and therefore has no mass, not infinite mass. Furthermore, if time stops at the speed of light how did space find the time to expand if no time was available?
Apparently the “get out” clause used by modern science is that it is believed that in the first picosecond (10-12) the laws of physics did not apply. The reason they make this claim is because their theory contradicts known science and this is the only way round it.
So let’s get this straight. I accept that to many I will be seen as a scientifically illiterate gullible woo-woo fool because I believe (through my own experiences) that precognition is real and that under certain circumstances déjà vu experiences are precognitive. It seems that I am open to criticism because such things have never been proven under laboratory conditions and such things contradict both logic and our present scientific model. But as far as I am aware the Big Bang has never been created under laboratory conditions either. Also, the concept of Cosmic Inflation flies totally in the face of our present understanding of how science works. So the belief in cosmic inflation fails exactly the same two rules that materialist-reductionists use to not even consider that precognition may occur. The materialist-reductionist “escape clause” is that our scientific laws did not apply in the first pico-second of the Big Bang. So could we not argue using the same “logic” that the present scientific laws do not apply to consciousness, perception and precognition experiences? No, it seems that these laws are just one-way.
But my actual question is a far more fundamental one. If space and time are quantised at the Planck scales (both time and space) then how did space and time move from a point particle containing absolutely nothing (not even space and time) suddenly and, presumably without any prior causation, just come into being, how did it “expand” as there was literally no space or time to expand into. Indeed, if space and time are themselves quantised what do these quantised (and therefore individuated) “particles” of time and space exist within …. What was the nature of the void that separated each quantum of space and time from each other quantum of space and time?
As far as the hubristic supporters of the Standard Model are concerned virtually everything about the universe can be explained. That they need such conveniences as Cosmic Inflation, the weirdly non-scientific Planck Era during the first picosecond, a mathematical trick called “Renormalisation” to get rid of the inconvenient infinities that result from their equations and to argue for the existence of “virtual particles” that contravene the Second Law of Thermodynamics and appear and disappear from nowhere with energy that similarly appears from nowhere.
But the idea that precognition, a perception that has been reported by millions of people across the globe and over the centuries, may be something worth exploring, is not entertained in any way by these experts ….. because their models are grounded in logic and science …. Except when they are not. But this matters little because they define the laws of engagement …. Hmmmm …..
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